evidence ?

 In listening to the reports of the incident in Philadelphia one thing struck me. Why is the media and everyone else automatically assuming it was racially motivated ? I mean, they are not just assuming that premise,  but reporting it as a fact ! But, let's examine the evidence. Two men are in the restaurant hanging out. Okay, that's cool. Then they are told they need to buy something in order to stay after requesting to use the rest room. I don't see anything unusual about that, They both refuse. The manager of the place, a woman calls the police. It is at this point where it is decided this is racially motivated ! Why ? Well it is because the men are black and she is white so therefore it has to be race. It couldn't be that she was afraid of two men refusing to leave, she certainly wouldn't have been afraid or reacted in that way if the guys were white, or if it were two women ! Muslims or Hispanics may have been an issue as well because, well, it was a white person that called the police. And whenever a white person calls the police on anyone besides another white person it is racist ! It just has to be. What bothers me is no one seems to question that at all. The chief executive officer of the corporation immediately apologizes, promises to close 8000 locations for two hours to have racial bias training and never once questions the motivations of either the patrons or the manager. GUILTY. That is what is being reported without a shred of evidence other than she is white and they are black. And this is supposed to improve race relations ?
 First off are all Starbucks employees white ? I don't think so, so will they require racial bias training as well, or are they already fully trained in that area ? In the 36 years of being in business has Starbucks never had a manager of color ? If they have, did that manager never ask a white person to buy something before using the restroom ? If they did why wasn't this training held then ? Surely there was racial bias 36 years ago. Why has it taken Starbucks this long to respond to that ?
 On another note it has been reported that this manager is to meet with those patrons in the hopes of reconciliation. The impression is that she did something wrong and has to apologize to them. What about their refusal to leave ? Why should this manager have to apologize for following the company policy ? Are we making exceptions to the policy based on race ? It sure seems that way to me.
 The bottom line for me is this. What evidence do you have to substantiate the idea that this was a racially motivated incident ?  Is it because those men are black ? Is that evidence ? Did this manager say anything that was racially biased ? Well, did she ? I don't believe so otherwise we should surely have heard those words a million times by now, the media surely wouldn't allow those words to go unspoken ! It would have been the headline ! So, there is no proof at all. We are all just supposed to accept that judgement as the absolute truth ! That is the narrative and there is to be no deviation from that. To even suggest otherwise will get you labeled ! I have been labeled already for my thoughts but I really don't care I'm just speaking the truth of it.