I read a news report where some states are considering lowering the voting age to 16. Setting aside all discussion of whether that is a good idea or not, I remarked that the 26th Amendment to the constitution sets that age. I was amazed by the number of people claiming otherwise. I even posted the 26th Amendment in case those folks didn't have a copy. Sadly you can't really expect others to look it up. The entire document, with footnotes and scholarly commentary is available with just a few keystrokes yet the effort is apparently too great. Still, I heard from many claiming the contrary, that the individual states or DC could indeed change that age. The primary argument? The amendment doesn't say they can't. I wonder where these folks went to school.
Section 2 of the 26th Amendment states, " The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation. " Just where in that statement does it say the states or DC have the power to make changes? It seems perfectly clear to me, The Congress shall have the power.
First I heard of sanctuary cities. That's still a concept I fail to understand. Federal law takes precedence over State or local law and ordinances. Then I keep hearing how certain states have " legalized " marijuana. That simply isn't true. Those states have decided not to enforce the federal statue, that much is true, but they haven't legalized marijuana. Failure to prosecute a crime is not legalization of that crime! And now I hear this silly notion that the voting age could be lowered by the states or DC. Hey people, this isn't a feudal society where individual states get to make their own laws contrary to the federal law. This is a constitutional republic where the law is established by a Congress of the people, that law being the supreme law of the land. It is the very reason we have the SUPREME court. The supreme court issues opinions on the constitutionality of law. It is the job of Congress to approve, disapprove or amend the law, you know, by amendments to that constitution.
State legislators do not have the power to modify the constitution! I really believed all of that was common knowledge but apparently there are a number of ignorant people out there. Guess they never watched School House Rock, I'm just a bill. Scary that many of these ignorant people appear to have higher education and degrees but can't pass a reading comprehension exam." The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation. " What does that mean? It means Congress has the power. Can't be much clearer than that. It goes on to say, enforce this article by legislation. That means law. That law must be constitutional law, not state law. Again pretty clear to me and I'm no lawyer.
I even heard one person arguing that it doesn't say if you are under 18 you can't vote. Section One : The right of the citizens, who are 18years of age or older, to vote, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any state on account of age. I wonder what part of " who are 18 years of age or older " this person fails to understand. His argument centered on the phrase " on account of age. " What age is that? 18 or older! Duh, I really get annoyed by that nonsense.
As to Felons keeping, losing temporarily, or having their voting rights restored that is up to the states. Why is that? Because it is not addressed in the Constitution of the United States directly. That power is reserved to the state. Some states may revoke your voting privilege. There has been a trend lately to restore that right. The reasons for doing so are strictly political in my opinion. It is all a part of a liberal agenda. What the states can't do is change the age requirement. That is set by Congress. Felons do not lose their citizenship and that is the argument for restoring their voting privileges. The 26th amendment does say voting is the right of a citizen. I think you can forfeit those rights if you commit a serious crime, you know, like a felony. But, that's just my thinking.
Well if you are over 18 and haven't committed any felonies, get out there and vote.
Section 2 of the 26th Amendment states, " The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation. " Just where in that statement does it say the states or DC have the power to make changes? It seems perfectly clear to me, The Congress shall have the power.
First I heard of sanctuary cities. That's still a concept I fail to understand. Federal law takes precedence over State or local law and ordinances. Then I keep hearing how certain states have " legalized " marijuana. That simply isn't true. Those states have decided not to enforce the federal statue, that much is true, but they haven't legalized marijuana. Failure to prosecute a crime is not legalization of that crime! And now I hear this silly notion that the voting age could be lowered by the states or DC. Hey people, this isn't a feudal society where individual states get to make their own laws contrary to the federal law. This is a constitutional republic where the law is established by a Congress of the people, that law being the supreme law of the land. It is the very reason we have the SUPREME court. The supreme court issues opinions on the constitutionality of law. It is the job of Congress to approve, disapprove or amend the law, you know, by amendments to that constitution.
State legislators do not have the power to modify the constitution! I really believed all of that was common knowledge but apparently there are a number of ignorant people out there. Guess they never watched School House Rock, I'm just a bill. Scary that many of these ignorant people appear to have higher education and degrees but can't pass a reading comprehension exam." The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation. " What does that mean? It means Congress has the power. Can't be much clearer than that. It goes on to say, enforce this article by legislation. That means law. That law must be constitutional law, not state law. Again pretty clear to me and I'm no lawyer.
I even heard one person arguing that it doesn't say if you are under 18 you can't vote. Section One : The right of the citizens, who are 18years of age or older, to vote, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any state on account of age. I wonder what part of " who are 18 years of age or older " this person fails to understand. His argument centered on the phrase " on account of age. " What age is that? 18 or older! Duh, I really get annoyed by that nonsense.
As to Felons keeping, losing temporarily, or having their voting rights restored that is up to the states. Why is that? Because it is not addressed in the Constitution of the United States directly. That power is reserved to the state. Some states may revoke your voting privilege. There has been a trend lately to restore that right. The reasons for doing so are strictly political in my opinion. It is all a part of a liberal agenda. What the states can't do is change the age requirement. That is set by Congress. Felons do not lose their citizenship and that is the argument for restoring their voting privileges. The 26th amendment does say voting is the right of a citizen. I think you can forfeit those rights if you commit a serious crime, you know, like a felony. But, that's just my thinking.
Well if you are over 18 and haven't committed any felonies, get out there and vote.
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